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- Why does No mean Number? - English Language Usage Stack Exchange
Why does English use "No " as an abbreviation for "Number"? It's a preserved scribal abbreviation like the ampersand (formed by eliding the letters of et to mean and) The OED has it in use from the 8th century, based on the ablative numerō used for an implied preposition in: X in or according to number
- etymology - Why were slum kids called “urchins”? - English Language . . .
None of the early sources I consulted spells out why a child variously described as "sorry," "unlucky," "short," and (above all) "little" should be particularly associated with a hedgehog Nevertheless, all of those early definitions possess a distinctly critical, commiserating, or patronizing tone
- Why is pineapple in English but ananas in all other languages?
The question is: why did the English adapt the name pineapple from Spanish (which originally meant pinecone in English) while most European countries eventually adapted the name ananas, which came from the Tupi word nanas (also meaning pineapple)
- meaning - XOXO means hugs and kisses but why? - English Language . . .
The reason why hugs and kisses is rendered XOXO and not OXOX is unknown Maybe it because of the influence of Tic-tac-toe However, according to ScoopWhoop , it's under debate
- nouns - Why is the word pants plural? - English Language Usage . . .
@GaretClaborn This answer was posted in 2010, but it was also posted earlier than the top scored answer, which contains the following quote "The pieces were put on each leg separately and then wrapped and tied or belted at the waist (just like cowboys’ chaps)" Uberto's answer says were two tube weakly linked, think to current tights
- Why is a 100% increase the same amount as a two-fold increase?
Number-folds increase means the original value multiplied by the number For example, 4 units by one-fold increase (4*1) remain 4 units, I guess that’s why for practical reasons no one say one-fold increase because it is not an increase Two-fold increase (4*2) becomes 8, and etc
- terminology - Why use BCE CE instead of BC AD? - English Language . . .
Why do people use the latter terminology? For one thing, I find it confusing It doesn't help that BCE is similar to BC But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms, whereas with BC and AD, the terms are clearly different and I find it easier to distinguish! Were BCE CE established earlier than BC AD?
- Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the US than the UK?
That's a very good question It certainly is offensive here in the US, and I'm not sure why it's considered so much worse than other "Anglo-Saxon" words I've used all of the other ones on occasion But in 52 years, I've used "cunt" anatomically only a handful of times, and I can't recall ever using it as a slang reference for a woman
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